Friday, February 6, 2026

chapter 7 Human Health and Disease Class 12 ( biology)

 CLASS 12

 BIOLOGY

chapter 7 Human Health and Disease

What Is Health?

In simple terms, Health can be defined as being free from all diseases and infections. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), health is not only the absence of disease or illness. It is a state of an active and energetic condition, including physical, mental, and social well-being. A balanced diet and regular exercise play an important role in maintaining the good health of an individual. There are many factors which affect health, such as:

  • Poorly balanced diet
  • Genetic disorders
  • Stress and anxiety
  • Infection from pathogens
  • Intake of unhealthy and unhygienic food
  • Lack of exercise and other physical activities

To maintain good health, an individual should include a healthy and balanced diet and maintain personal hygiene along with regular exercise and other physical activities. Everyone should be aware of the different types of diseases and their effect

What Are Diseases?

A disease is an abnormal condition affecting a healthy living organism. It is broadly divided into infectious and non-infectious.

Infectious diseases- These diseases are caused by the pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites and can be easily transmitted from one person to another; hence it is also known as a contagious or communicable disease. Common Cold, Tuberculosis, flu, ringworm, and malaria are some examples of infectious diseases.

Non-infectious diseases- Diseases which cannot be transmitted from one person to another are called non-infectious disease, it is also known as non-communicable disease. These diseases can be either caused by genetic disorders, unhealthy diets, lack of physical activity and a few environmental factors.

Immunity

Immunity is defined as the ability of the body to protect, defend and fight against invading  like bacteria, viruses, and other foreign bodies and toxic substances. There are two types of immunity.

  • Innate immunity – non-specific defence type of immunity present at the time of birth achieved by the provision of 4 barrier types – the physical barrier, physiological barrier, cellular barrier, and cytokine barrier.
  • Acquired immunity – pathogen-specific immunity that is characterized by memory.

Active and Passive Immunity

Active immunity is where the host produces antibodies in the form of dead or living microbes when it is exposed to antigens. It is a slow process, taking time to provide its full effective response. Passive immunity, on the other hand, is the immunity where ready-made antibodies are given directly to protect the body against any foreign agents.

3. Some of the common infectious diseases are:

I. Bacterial Diseases
(i) Typhoid is caused by bacterium (Salmonella typhi).
(a) S. typhi enters the small intestine through food and water contaminated with them and migrate to other organs through blood.
(b) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.
(c) Widal test is a confirmation test for typhoid.
(a) These bacteria infect alveoli of the lungs. The alveoli get filled with fluid causing decrease in respiratory efficiency of the lungs.
(b) Pneumonia spreads by inhaling droplets/aerosol from infected individuals or even by sharing glasses and utensils with patients.
(c) Symptoms of pneumonia are fever, chills, cough, headache, etc.
(iii) Dysentery, plague, diphtheria, etc., are some other examples of bacterial diseases.

II. Viral Disease
Common cold occurs due to a group of viruses called rhino viruses.
(a) These viruses infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
(b) Common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness, etc., which generally last for 3-7 days.
(c) The infection occurs due to cough or sneezes of an infected person, either inhaled directly or transmitted through contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, computer’s keyboard or mouse, etc.

III. Protozoan Diseases
(i) Malaria is caused by a protozoan, Plasmodium sp. (P. vivax, P. malariae and P. falciparum).
(a) P. falciparum causes most serious kind of malaria, i.e. malignant malaria which can be fatal.
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector of Plasmodium, which transfer the sporozoites (infectious form) in human body.
(c) Life cycle of Plasmodium is given in the figure.
Human Health and Disease - CBSE Notes for Class 12 Biology img-2

• The malarial parasite requires two hosts to complete its life cycle, i.e. human and mosquito.
• Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoite, through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
• Parasites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs) causing their rupture.
• Rupture of RBCs release a toxic substance called haemozoin. Haemozoin causes chill and high fever recurring every 3-4 days.
• When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito’s body and undergo further development.
• The parasites multiply within them to form sporozoites that are stored in their salivary glands.
• When these mosquitoes bite a human, the sporozoites are introduced into his/her body, initiating the events mentioned above.
(d) Antimalarial drugs used for the treatment are quinine and chloroquin.
(e) Malaria can be prevented by killing mosquitoes by spraying DDT, BHC, etc., and using insect repellents, mosquito nets, etc.
(ii) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) is caused by an intestinal endoparasite, Entamoeba histolytica, which is found in large intestine of humans.
(a) Carrier of pathogen is housefly. It transmits the parasite from faeces of infected person to the food, thereby contaminating them.
(b) Infection takes place mainly through the contaminated food and water.
(c) Symptoms are abdominal pain, constipation, cramps, faeces with excess mucous and blood clots.

IV. Fungal Disease
Ringworm is caused by many fungi of genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
(i) Infection occurs through contact with an infected person or from soil and through the use of towels, clothes, combs, etc., of an infected person.
(ii) Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow in regions like skin folds as in groin or between the toes.
(Hi) Symptoms of ringworm are appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp accompanied by intense itching.

V. Helminthic Diseases

(i) Ascariasis is caused by an intestinal endoparasite of human, Ascaris lumbricoides commonly called as roundworm.
(a) Infection occurs as the eggs of parasite are excreted along with the faeces of infected person, which contaminate water, soil, plants, etc.
(b) Infection reaches to human beings through contaminated vegetables, fruits and water, etc.
(c) Symptoms of disease are abdominal pain, indigestion, muscular pain, fever, anaemia, nausea, headache and blockage of intestinal passage.
(ii) Filariasis/Elephantiasis is caused by filarial worms, Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi.
(a) Culex mosquito (female) is the vector.
(b) Genital organs also get affected leading to their deformation.
(c) Symptoms are inflammation of organs in which they live for many years, normally affect lymph vessels of lower limbs resulting in swelling hence, called elephantiasis.

4. Prevention measures to avoid infectious diseases are:

(i) Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is important.
(ii) Personal hygiene includes keeping the body clean, consumption of clean drinking water, food, vegetables, fruits, etc.
(iii) Public hygiene includes proper disposal of waste excreta, periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs, pools, cesspools and tanks.
(iv) Eradication of vectors and destroying their breeding sites.
(v) Mosquito nets, repellants should be used.
(vi) Vaccination and immunisation programmes for diseases should be strictly followed.
(vii) Use of antibiotics and other drugs can significantly keep away infectious diseases.

5. Immunity is the capacity of an organism to resist or defend itself from the  development of a disease. It is of the following types, as shown below:
Human Health and Disease - CBSE Notes for Class 12 Biology img-3
I. Innate immunity is present from birth and is inherited from the parents.
(i) It is non-specific.
(ii) It consists as following types:
(a) Physical barriers prevent entry of microorganisms in the body e.g. skin, mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts.
(b) Physiological barriers prevent microbial growth in the body, e.g. acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth and tears from eyes.

II. Acquired immunity is not present from birth and develops during an individual’s life time.

(i) It is pathogen specific and characterised by memory.
(ii) When it encounters a pathogen for the first time, it produces a response called
primaiy response, which is of low intensity.
(iii) Further encounter with same pathogen produces highly intensified secondary or
anamnestic response due to memory of the first encounter.
(iv) Immune responses are produced by two types of lymphocytes:
(a) B-lymphocytes or B-cells produce an army of proteins (in response to pathogens) called antibodies in blood.
(b) T-lymphocytes or T-cells help B-cells to produce antibodies.
(v) Types of acquired immunity:
(a) Humoral immune response or Antibody Mediated Immunity (AMI) It is mediated by antibodies present in blood and lymph.
(a) Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains, i.e. two small called
light (L) chains and two longer called heavy (H) chains. Hence, an antibody is represented as H^.
(b) An antibody seems like a Y-shaped structure.

6. Acquired immunity is the following two types:

7. Vaccination and immunization The principle is based on the property of memory of immune system.
(i) Vaccination is the process of introduction of weakened or inactivated pathogens or proteins (vaccine) into a person to provide protection against a disease.
(ii) Immunisation is a process by which the body produces antibodies against the vaccine (primary response) and develop the ability to neutralise pathogens during actual infection (secondary response), i.e. the body become immune to that antigen or infection.
(iii) Vaccine generates memory B and T-cells that recognise the pathogens on subsequent exposure and produce an intense immune response.
(iv) In case of requirement of quick immune response like tetanus infection, preformed antibodies are injected into the patient. This is called passive immunisation.
(v) Recombinant DNA technology has produced antigenic polypeptides of pathogen in bacteria or yeast. This allowed large scale production of vaccine, e.g. hepatitis-B vaccine from yeast, etc.

8. Human immune system includes (i) lymphoid organs (ii) immune cells (iii) soluble molecules like antibodies (iv) lymphoid tissues.

Lymphoid organs These are the organs where origin and/or maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes occur. They are as following two types:
(a) Primary lymphoid organs are the sites where lymphocytes differentiate and mature to become antigen-sensitive, e.g. bone marrow and thymus.
In bone marrow, all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced and B-lymphocytes mature.
Thymus is a lobed organ, located near the heart and beneath the breastbone.
It reduces as the age increases. T-lymphocytes develop and mature in thymus.
(b) Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites where lymphocytes interact with the antigen and proliferate to become effector cells, e.g. spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils,  Peycr’s patches of small intestine and appendix.

9. Autoimmunity is an abnormal immune response in which immune system of the body starts arthritis.
rejecting its own body cell or self cells and molecules, e.g. Rheumatoid

10. AIDS or Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome was first reported in 1981 in USA.
(i) The causative agent is Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
(ii) HIV belongs to the group of viruses called retrovirus. It has RNA genome enclosed in an envelope.
(iii) HIV is transmitted by
(a) Sexual contact with infected person.
(b) Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
(c) Sharing infected needles.
(d) Infected mother to unborn child through placenta.
(iv) People, who are susceptible to infection are:
(a) Drug addicts, who take intravenous drug injections.
(b) Individuals who are involved with multiple sexual partners.
(c) Individuals who require repeated blood transfusion.
(d) Children born to HIV positive mother.
(v) Modes of HIV infection:
(a) Virus enters the macrophages, after entering the body of a person.
(b) RNA gets replicated to form viral DNA by enzyme reverse transcriptase.
(c) Viral DNA gets incorporated into the host cell DNA and directs the infected cells to produce virus particles.
(d) Macrophages continue to produce virus particles and thus, acts as HIV factory.
(e) These virus particles enter into helper T-lymphocytes (TH cells) in the blood, where they continue to replicate and produce viral progenies.
(f) The number of helper T-lymphocytes progressively decreases in the body of the infected person.
(g) As the number of T-cells decrease, the immunity also decreases. As a result, person cannot produce any immune response even against common bacteria like Mycobacterium, parasite like Toxoplasma, viruses and fungi.

(b) Role of WHO to prevent HIV infection:
* Ensure use of disposable syringes and needles.
* Ensure keeping blood banks safe from HIV.
* Free distribution of condoms.
* Prevention of drug abuse.
* Discouraging unsafe sex and encouraging regular check-up.

11. Cancer can be defined as an uncontrolled growth or proliferation of cells without any differentiation.
(i) In our body, cell growth and differentiation is highly controlled and regulated.
(ii) The cancer cells divide repeatedly with uncontrolled cell divisions. They do not require extracellular growth factors.
(iii) Cancer cells lost the property of contact inhibition (contact with other cells inhibit the uncontrolled growth).
(iv) The repeated division of cancerous cells, form a large mass of cells called tumours.
(v) Cancer cells move from tumour to new sites through blood for forming secondary tumours. This invasion of cancer cells from one part to other parts by the body fluids is called metastasis.
(vi) Types of tumour and differences between them:
vii) Cancer causing viruses are called oncogenic viruses. They have genes called viral oncogenes.
(viii) Normal cells have genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc.) or proto oncogenes, which are present in inactive state, but under certain conditions (like mutation) could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
(ix) Carcinogens are cancer causing agents. They may be
(a) Chemicals As in cigarette smoke, benzopyrene, dyes, paints, etc.
(b) Biological Oncogenic viruses, some parasites, etc.
(c) Physical Ionising radiation like X-rays and y-rays, non-ionising radiations like UV-rays.
(x) Cancer can be detected by the following methods:
(a) Blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts.
(b) Biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue.
(c) Radiography by X-rays, to detect cancer of the internal organs.
(d) Computed Tomography (CT) using X-rays, to generate a 3-D image of internal tissue.
(e) Resonance imaging involves use of non-ionising radiation and strong magnetic field to detect pathological and physiological changes in living tissue.
(f) Monoclonal antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are also used for cancer detection.
(xi) Treatment of cancer involves following methods:
(a) Surgery Tumours are removed by surgery to check further spread of cancer cells.
(b) Radiation therapy Tumour cells are irradiated by lethal doses of radiation, taking care to protect the surrounding normal cells.
(c) Chemotherapy Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancer cells. But,their side effects like hair loss, anaemia is also reported.
Most cancers are treated by the combination of the above three.
(d) Immunotherapy Biological modifiers like a-interferons are used to activate the immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.


Thursday, February 5, 2026

MCQ for Class 10 Science with Answers

 

MCQ for Class 10 Science with Answers


1. In the reaction 2HCl + Na2CO3 → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2, the products are:

a) Sodium chloride and water only

b) Sodium chloride, water, and carbon dioxide

c) Sodium chloride, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen

d) Sodium chloride, hydrogen, and oxygen


Answer: b


2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an acid?

a) Sour taste

b) Turns blue litmus paper red

c) Reacts with a base to form a salt and water

d) Has a pH greater than 7


Answer: d


3. Which of the following is a non-metal?

a) Sodium

b) Oxygen

c) Iron

d) Calcium


Answer: b


4. Which of the following is an organic compound?

a) H2O

b) NaCl

c) CO2

d) C2H6


Answer: d


5. In the periodic table, elements in the same ______ have similar chemical and physical properties.

a) Group

b) Period

c) Series

d) Block


Answer: a


6. The process by which living organisms obtain and use energy from food is called:

a) Respiration

b) Photosynthesis

c) Digestion

d) Transpiration


Answer: a


7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?

a) Controlling and coordinating body movements

b) Regulating body temperature

c) Receiving and interpreting information from the environment

d) Responding to stimuli


Answer: b


8. In humans, fertilization occurs in the:

a) Ovary

b) Uterus

c) Fallopian tube

d) Vagina


Answer: c


9. Which of the following is a heritable characteristic?

a) The ability to play a musical instrument

b) The ability to ride a bicycle

c) Eye color

d) Learned behavior


Answer: c


10. The change in the frequency or wavelength of a wave as it passes from one medium to another is called:

a) Diffraction

b) Reflection

c) Refraction

d) Interference


Answer: c


11. The ability of the eye to see objects at different distances is called:

a) Accommodation

b) Refraction

c) Reflection

d) Dispersion


Answer: a


12. A material through which electric current can pass with very little resistance is called a:

a) Conductor

b) Insulator

c) Semiconductor

d) Diode


Answer: a


13. The magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying wire is:

a) Concentrated in the center of the wire

b) Concentrated around the wire

c) Concentrated at the ends of the wire

d) Non-existent


Answer: b


14. Which of the following is NOT a renewable source of energy?

a) Solar energy

b) Wind energy

c) Fossil fuels

d) Hydroelectric energy


Answer: c


15. Which of the following is an example of non-biodegradable waste?

a) Vegetable peels

b) Paper

c) Plastic bags

d) Fallen leaves


Answer: c


Frequently Asked Questions on Light – Reflection and Refraction

Q1

Which mirror can form a real image of an object?

Concave.

Q2

The swimming pool appears to be less deep than it actually is. Which of the following phenomena is responsible for this?

Refraction of light.

Q3

A 3 cm high object is placed at a distance of 80cm from a concave lens of focal length 20cm. Find the size of the image formed.

0.6 cm

Light – Reflection and Refraction Class 10 MCQs

Q1) When a plane mirror is rotated through a certain angle, the reflected ray turns through twice as much and the size of the image:

(a) is doubled

(b) is halved

(c) becomes infinite

(d) remains the same

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q2) If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72 degrees, then the total no. of images formed is:

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 2

(d) infinite

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q3) Which statement is true for the reflection of light?

(a) The angle of incidence and reflection are equal.

(b) The reflected light is less bright than the incident light.

(c) The sum of the angle of incidence and reflection is always greater than 900.

(d) The beams of the incident light, after reflection, diverge at unequal angles.

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q4) The focal length of a plane mirror is

(a) 0

(b) infinite

(c) 25 cm

(d) -25 cm

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q5) The image shows the path of incident rays to a concave mirror.

CBSE Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction - 1

Where would the reflected rays meet for the image formation to take place?

(a) Behind the mirror

(b) Between F and O

(c) Between C and F

(d) Beyond C

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q6) A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is:

(a) parallel

(b) convergent

(c) divergent

(d) not certain

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q7) An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of a focal length of 20 cm.

The image produced is:

(a) virtual and inverted

(b) real and erect

(c) real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object

(d) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q8) A student conducts an experiment using a convex lens. He places the object at a distance of 60 cm in front of the lens and observes that the image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind the lens. What is the power of the lens?

(a) 0.005 dioptre

(b) 0.05 dioptre

(c) 5 dioptre

(d) 50 dioptre

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q9) An image of an object produced on a screen which is about 36 cm using a convex lens. The image produced is about 3 times the size of the object. What is the size of the object?

(a) 12 cm

(b) 33 cm

(c) 39 cm

(d) 108 cm

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q10) Image formed by a convex spherical mirror is:

(a) virtual

(b) real

(c) enlarged

(d) inverted

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q11) A student studies that a convex lens always forms a virtual image irrespective of its position. What causes the convex mirror to always form a virtual image?

(a) Because the reflected ray never intersects

(b) Because the reflected ray converges at a single point

(c) Because the incident ray traces its path back along the principal axis

(d) Because the incident ray of a convex mirror gets absorbed in the mirror

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q12) A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front pin is formed at 30cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is:

(a) -30 cm

(b) -20 cm

(c) -40 cm

(d) -60 cm

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q13) Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height of 10 cm and a concave lens with a focal length of 20 cm. The object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the lens. Can the image be formed on a screen?

(a) Yes, as the image formed will be real

(b) Yes, as the image formed will be erect

(c) No, as the image formed will be virtual

(d) No, as the image formed will be inverted

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q14) Magnification produced by a rearview mirror fitted in vehicles:

(a) is less than one

(b) is more than one

(c) is equal to one

(d) can be more than or less than one, depending upon the position of the object in front of it

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q15) A student conducts an activity using a concave mirror with a focal length of 10 cm. He placed the object 15 cm from the mirror. Where is the image likely to form?

(a) At 6 cm behind the mirror

(b) At 30 cm behind the mirror

(c) At 6 cm in front of the mirror

(d) At 30 cm in front of the mirror

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q16) The image of an object placed in front of a convex mirror is formed at

(a) the object itself

(b) twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror

(c) half the distance of the object in front of the mirror

(d) behind the mirror

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q17) A full length of the image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen using:

(a) a concave mirror

(b) a convex mirror

(c) a plane mirror

(d) both concave as well as plane mirrors

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q18) A student conducts an activity using a flask of height 15 cm and a concave mirror. He finds that the image formed is 45 cm in height. What is the magnification of the image?

(a) -3 times

(b) -1/ 3 times

(c) 1/ 3 times

(d) 3 times

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q19) Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light from a point source incident on it?

(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens

(b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens

(c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90degree to each other

(d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q20) A student studies that the speed of light in air is 300000 km/sec, whereas that of speed in a glass slab is about 197000 km/sec. What causes the difference in the speed of light in these two media?

(a) Difference in density

(b) Difference in temperature

(c) Difference in the amount of light

(d) Difference in the direction of wind flow

Correct Answer: Option (a)

CBSE Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 12 Electricity with Answers

Q1) The image shows a circuit diagram.

CBSE Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 12 Electricity-1

What is being measured using the voltmeter?

(a) Current in the circuit

(b) Voltage in the circuit

(c) The voltage across the resistor

(d) The resistance offered by the resistor

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q2) The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is

(a) < 100 Ω

(b) < 4 Ω

(c) < 1 Ω

(d) > 2 Ω

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q3) Work of 14 J is done to move 2 C charge between two points on a conducting wire. What is the potential difference between the two points?

(a) 28 V

(b) 14 V

(c) 7 V

(d) 3.5 V

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q4) A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of

(a) More length

(b) Less radius

(c) Less length

(d) More radius

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q5) A circuit has a charge of 2C moving through it in 3 s. Which electrical component in the circuit, if present, will show the current?

(a) Voltmeter will show a current of 6 A

(b) Ammeter will show a current of 0.7 A

(c) Rheostat will show a current of 0.7 A

(d) Resistor will show a current of 0.35 A

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q6) Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon

(a) Its length

(b) Its thickness

(c) Its shape

(d) Nature of the material

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q7) Two devices are connected between two points, say A and B, in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is

(a) Current

(b) Voltage

(c) Resistance

(d) None of these

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q8) Unit of electric power may also be expressed as

(a) Volt-ampere

(b) Kilowatt-hour

(c) Watt second

(d) Joule second

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q9) What is the relationship between resistance and current?

(a) They are directly related to each other

(b) They are inversely related to each other

(c) The resistance has a greater magnitude than the current

(d) The current has a greater magnitude than the resistance

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q10) The resistance whose V – I graph is given below is

CBSE Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 12 Electricity-2

(a) 5/3 Ω

(b) 3/5 Ω

(c) 5/2 Ω

(d) 2/5 Ω

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q11) A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. The number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly

(a) 1020

(b) 1016

(c) 1018

(d) 1023

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q12) How much more heat is produced if the current is doubled?

(a) Twice the original amount

(b) Thrice the original amount

(c) Four times the original amount

(d) Five times the original amount

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q13) Which of the following represents voltage?

(a) Work done / Current × Time

(b) Work done × Charge

(c) Work done × Time / Current

(d) Work done × Charge × Time

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q14) A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volts and a fan of 500 W, 200 volts are to be used from a household supply. The rating of the fuse to be used is

(a) 2.5 A

(b) 5.0 A

(c) 7.5 A

(d) 10 A

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q15) Which combination of a 2 Ω resistor and 4 Ω resistor offers the least resistance to current in the circuit?

(a) Series combination, which results in a net resistance of 2 Ω

(b) Parallel combination, which results in a net resistance of 2 Ω

(c) Series combination, which results in a net resistance of 1.5 Ω

(d) Parallel combination, which results in a net resistance of 0.5 Ω

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q16) In an electrical circuit, two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω, respectively, are connected in series to a 6 V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be

(a) 5 J

(b) 10 J

(c) 20 J

(d) 30 J

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q17) In order to reduce electricity consumption at home, what kind of appliance should one purchase?

(a) One which draws low power

(b) One which produces less heat

(c) One which operates at a higher voltage

(d) One which draws a high amount of current

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q18) If n resistors each of resistance R are connected in parallel combination, then their equivalent resistance is

(a) R/n2

(b) n2/R

(c) n/R

(d) R/n

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q19) Which one among a bar of an alloy of mass 2 kg and a 3 kg iron bar of the same dimension has greater resistivity?

(a) Iron bar because it has a higher mass

(b) Alloy bar because it has a lower mass

(c) Iron bar because it has the same types of atoms

(d) Alloy bar because it has different types of atoms

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q20) Two resistors connected in series give an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, give 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance is

(a) each of 5 Ω

(b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω

(c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω

(d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q21) A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is

(a) 2 × 103 joule

(b) 2 × 105 joule

(c) 2 × 104 joule

(d) 2 × 102 joule

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q22) Two bulbs are rated 40W, 220W and 60W, 220W. The ratio of their resistances will be

(a) 4:3

(b) 3:4

(c) 2:3

(d) 3:2

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q23) The image shows a combination of 4 resistors.

CBSE Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 12 Electricity-3

What is the net resistance between the two points in the circuit?

(a) 0.5 Ω

(b) 1.0 Ω

(c) 1.5 Ω

(d) 2.0 Ω

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q24) If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W, respectively, operating 220 V, then

(a) R1 < R2

(b) R2 < R1

(c) R1 = R2

(d) R1 ≥ R2

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q25) An electric toaster has a power rating of 200 W. It operates for 1 hour in the morning and 1 hour in the evening. How much does it cost to operate the toaster for 10 days at Rs. 5 per kW h?

(a) Rs. 20

(b) Rs. 400

(c) Rs. 5000

(d) Rs. 10000

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q26) A coil in the heater consumes power P on passing current. If it is cut into halves and joined in parallel, it will consume power

(a) P

(b) P/2

(c) 2 P

(d) 4 P

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q27) Calculate the current flow through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.

CBSE Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 12 Electricity-4

(a) 1.2 A

(b) 0.6 A

(c) 0.2 A

(d) 2.0 A

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q28) The effective resistance between A and B is

CBSE Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 12 Electricity-5

(a) 4 Ω

(b) 6 Ω

(c) May be 10 Ω

(d) Must be 10 Ω

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q29) In this question, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:

Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from one terminal of the electric cell to another.

Reason: Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.

(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.

(d) The statement of the Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

Correct Answer: Option (d)